I know that $f^{-1}$ denotes the inverse of the function $f$. Like many others, I find this notation bizarre and ambiguous.
But my question is: where does this notation come from? Who used this notation first? In what context and what was their justification? Is there a sense in which $1/f$ really is the inverse of $f$? Did the inventor have some notion of $f^{-2}$, and if so, what would it be? (The "second inverse of $f$"?) Where there other competing notations that lost out for some reason?
My hope is that, if I can understand the notation historically, it might seem less mad. Maybe the notation even hides something profound that I don't understand.