Fatou Lemma: Suppose $\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of measurable functions with $f_n \geq 0$. If $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}f_n(x)=f(x)$ for a.e. $x$, then $$\int f \leq \liminf_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int f_n$$
Proof: Suppose $0\leq g \leq f$, where $g$ is bounded and supported on a set $E$ of finite measure. If we set $g_n(x)=\min(g(x),f_n(x))$, then $g_n$ is measurable. etc..
I don't know why $g_n$ is measurable. because the author didn't assume $g$ is measurable. can anyone explain why? thanks very much
To prove that $g_n(x)=\inf_{k\ge n} f_k(x)$ is measurable note that $g_n^{-1}([c,+\infty])=\bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} {x \in X: f_n(x)\ge c}$
– Cortizol Jun 14 '13 at 07:35