I am reading a text on finite fields and got stuck on a little side note of the introductory part. I hope I am adding enough context, if not let me know. $p$ is a prime number and $a,b \in \mathbb Z$.
For every integer $a$ we denote with $\bar a\in {0, ..., p-1}$ the remainder of $a$ when divided by $p$. That means $\bar a$ is a uniquely determined number in ${0, ..., p-1}$ with $a=kp+\bar a$ for a $k\in \mathbb Z$. (This has already been proven) ... It is easy to prove that $\overline{a+b}=\bar a +\bar b$ and $\overline{ab}=\bar a \bar b$.
Unfortunately this is not easy for me. My try:
Let $a=kp+\bar a$ and $b=lp+\bar b$ with $k,l \in \mathbb Z$. $$a+b=kp+\bar a + lp+\bar b;$$ $$a+b=(k+l)p+(\bar a+\bar b).$$
Thus $\overline{a+b}=\bar a +\bar b$. However, it may well be that $\bar a +\bar b$ larger than $p$, so this does not work.
While looking for an answer I found this question: Prove that $\overline{a+b}=\bar{a}+\bar{b}$ But this is not helping me.