Let $M$ be an oriented Riemannian manifold with volume form $dV$, and let $X$ be a smooth vector field on $M$. Recall that the divergence of $X$ is characterized by the formula $d(i_X dV)=(\text{div}X) dV $ (where $i_X$ is the interior multiplication by $X$.)
In p.115 of the book Spin Geometry (Lawson, Michelson), it is written that, at $x\in M$, $\text{div}(X)(x)=\sum_j \langle \nabla_{e_j} X,e_j\rangle_x$, where $e_1,\dots,e_n$ is an orthonormal frame of $TM$. Are these two definitions equivalent? I can't see why..