I just tried a simple method:
$$\frac{\ln(i)}{\ln(1)} = \frac{\ln(e^{\frac{i\pi n}{2}})}{\ln(e^{i2 \pi n})} = x$$ Using Euler's formula
$$\frac{\frac{i\pi n}{2}}{i2\pi n} = x$$ Simplifying the $\ln$ and $e$
$$\frac{\frac{\pi}{2}}{2\pi} = x$$ I feel like I missed something between the previous step and this one
$$x = \frac{1}{4}$$ Totally wrong.
Is this just one of those 'holes in math' situation?