This is a very standard exercise in Calculus. The point of this question is, well, I'm able to solve it, but I'm struggling to make out why I'm choosing the integration ranges the way they are chosen. A lot of similar exercises are asked (e.g. volume of the region bounded by the surfaces $x = 0, y = x, y = 2 - x^2, z = 0$ and $z = x^2$, Volume of the first octant under a surface), but I'm trying to understand this specific problem.
Find the volume of the region in the first octant bounded above by the surface $z=1-x-y$.
Obvious Solution: $$ V=\int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{1-x} \int_{0}^{1-x-y} 1 d z d y d x=\int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{1-x}(1-x-y) d y d x=\int_{0}^{1} \frac{(1-x)^{2}}{2} d x=\frac{1}{3} . $$ My thinking for choosing the integration ranges like that isn't clear. I've visualized and drawn what that volume looks like. As it seemed like $z$ increased from $0$, and $z = 1-x-y$, I chose $\int_{0}^{1-x-y} 1 d z$. (This probably isn't a good way to think about things) But now I get confused for integrating over $y$. I get that $0 \le x \le 1$, $0 \le y \le 1-x$, $0\le z \le 1-x-y$ describes $V$ if I draw it in Matlab or something, but how can I justify this for certain using just reasoning, and a pencil and paper? I should note that I'm expected to be able to do this quickly under exam conditions.
