Is $f_n(x)=\frac{x}{1+nx^2}$ uniformly convergent on $\mathbb{R}?$
I found the answer here .
Here is an outline of the solution
$$\sup\limits_{x\in\mathbb R}|f_n(x)-0|=\sup\limits_{x\in\mathbb R}\dfrac{|x|}{|1+nx^2|}=$$ $$\sup\limits_{x\in\mathbb R}\dfrac{|x|}{1+\sqrt{n}|x|^2}\leq\sup\limits_{x\in\mathbb R}\dfrac{|x|}{2\sqrt{n}|x|}=\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{n}}\overset{n\rightarrow\infty}{\longrightarrow }0$$ Therefore, $\sup\limits_{x\in\mathbb R}|f_n(x)-0|\rightarrow 0, $ i.e. $f_n$ converges uniformly to $0$.
My confusion : Im not getting why $1+\sqrt{n}|x|^2 \ge 2\sqrt{n}|x|?$ why not $1+\sqrt{n}|x|^2 \ge 2\sqrt{n}|x|^2?$
My thinking : If $1+\sqrt{n}|x|^2 \ge 2\sqrt{n}|x|^2$ then $f_n(x)$ will not uniformly convergent see Here
why it is a compulsory to take $1+\sqrt{n}|x|^2 \ge 2\sqrt{n}|x|?$