I've just proven that if two $n$-degree polynomials pass through the same $n+1$ points, then they must be the same polynomial. (Otherwise, the difference of the 2 polynomials will be a non-zero ≤ n-degree polynomial with $n+1$ roots, which is not possible.
However, I don't think this implies that there can't be zero $n$ degree polynomials that pass through a given set of $n+1$ points.
Could someone please check my proof and point out any mistakes, and suggest a simpler proof if there is one?
My attempt:
Proving that there is a quadratic polynomial passing through any 3 points $(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2),(x_3,y_3)$.
$$\begin{aligned}&\text{By the axioms of euclidean geometry, a straight line(linear polynomial) can be drawn through any 2 points.}\\\\ &\text{let}\ L(x) \ \text{be a linear polynomial such that}\ L(x_1)=y_1\ \text{and}\ L(x_2)=y_2\\\\ &\text {Then a quadratic polynomial}\ P(x)\ \text{can be defined as} \end{aligned} $$ $$P(x)=L(x)\ +\lambda(x-x_1)(x-x_2) $$ $$\text{Where λ is a suitable constant that will make}\ P(x_3)\ \text{ equal to }\ y_3$$
Continuing this argument, if there always exists a $n-1$-degree polynomial passing through any set of $n$ points, there must also be an $n$ degree polynomial passing through any set of $n+1$ points as you can define it as a sum of an $n-1$ degree polynomial passing through $n$ of the $n+1$ points and $\lambda(x-x_1)(x-x_2)...(x-x_n) $ with suitable λ to make it pass through the $(n+1)^{th}$ point.