Let $V,W$ be $\mathfrak g$-modules with representations $\rho_V: \mathfrak g \rightarrow End(V), \rho_W: \mathfrak g \rightarrow End(W).$ I know that $V\otimes W$ is also a $\mathfrak g$-module, with representation $\rho: \mathfrak g \rightarrow End(V\otimes W)$ mapping $ x \mapsto \rho_V(x)\otimes 1 + 1 \otimes \rho_W(x), \,x\in \mathfrak g.$
Since $End(V\otimes W)$ is an associative unital algebra, from the universal property of $U(\mathfrak g)$, there exists an homomorphism of unital algebras $\tilde \rho : U(\mathfrak g) \rightarrow End(V\otimes W)$ such that $\rho = \tilde\rho \circ i$, where $i: \mathfrak g \rightarrow U(\mathfrak g)$ is the canonical inclusion.
This way, given $xy\in U(\mathfrak g)$, we have $$\tilde \rho(xy) = \tilde \rho(x) \tilde \rho(y) = (\rho_V(x)\otimes 1 + 1 \otimes \rho_W(x)) (\rho_V(y)\otimes 1 + 1 \otimes \rho_W(y)) = \rho_V(x) \rho_V(y)\otimes 1+ \rho_V(x) \otimes \rho_W(y) + \rho_V(y)\otimes \rho_W(x)+ 1\otimes \rho_V(x)\rho_W(y).$$
In language of modules, this is the same thing as saying that $\tilde \rho(xy)(v\otimes w) = x\cdot (y\cdot (v\otimes w))$ for all $v\in V,w\in W$.
From the answer in this post here: tensor product of modules of Lie algebras, it is said that $V\otimes W$ is a $U(\mathfrak g)$-module via the comultiplication $\Delta: U(\mathfrak g) \rightarrow U(\mathfrak g)\otimes U(\mathfrak g)$ which maps $g \mapsto g\otimes 1 + 1 \otimes g,$ whence the composition $$\phi: U(\mathfrak g) \xrightarrow{ \Delta} U(\mathfrak g)\otimes U(\mathfrak g) \xrightarrow{ \tilde \rho_V \otimes \tilde \rho_W} End(V)\otimes End(W) \rightarrow End(V\otimes W)$$ gives the representation of $U(\mathfrak g)$ on $V\otimes W$. However, when we evaluate this representation on $xy\in U(\mathfrak g)$, it seems that I am not obtaining the same result above. In fact, we have $$xy \mapsto xy\otimes 1 + 1 \otimes xy \mapsto \tilde \rho_V(x)\tilde \rho_V(y) \otimes 1 + 1 \otimes \tilde \rho_V(x)\tilde\rho(y),$$ so $\phi(xy)(v\otimes w) = (x\cdot (y \cdot v) ) \otimes w + v \otimes (x\cdot (y\cdot w))$ for all $v\in V,w \in W$.
What is wrong here? Which one of the above is the correct interpretation for the action of $xy\in U(\mathfrak g)$ on $V\otimes W$?