I decide to use contour integral to calculate $I=\int_{-1}^{1}\frac{dx}{(x-2)\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}$ but there's a problem for my result. Following is my process.
Denote $f(z)=\frac{1}{(z-2)\sqrt{1-z^{2}}}$, let [-1,1] be the cut and get two analytic branches
they are $$f_{0}(z)=\frac{1}{(z-2)\sqrt{\left |1-z^{2} \right |}e^{i\frac{arg(1-z^{2})}{2}}}$$ and $$f_{1}(z)=\frac{-1}{(z-2)\sqrt{\left |1-z^{2} \right |}e^{i\frac{arg(1-z^{2})}{2}}}$$
I take the contour as following:
contour http://img14.poco.cn/mypoco/myphoto/20130618/11/17398969020130618110820079.png
I get a equation that: $$ \lim_{r\rightarrow +\infty ,\varepsilon \rightarrow0^{+} }\int _{\Gamma}f_{0}(z)dz=\int_{-1 }^{1 }f_{0}(x){dx}+\int_{1 }^{-1}f_{1}(x){dx}+\lim_{r\rightarrow +\infty ,\varepsilon \rightarrow0^{+} }\left (\int _{\Gamma_{r}}+\int _{\Gamma_{\varepsilon }}+\int _{{\Gamma_{\varepsilon }}'} \right )f_{0}(z)dz $$
I work out that $\int _{\Gamma_{r}}f_{0}(z)dz=\int _{\Gamma_{\varepsilon }}f_{0}(z)dz=\int _{{\Gamma_{\varepsilon }}'}f_{0}(z)dz=0$ while $r\rightarrow +\infty $ and $ \varepsilon \rightarrow 0^{+}$
and according to residue theorem I get that $$ \int _{\Gamma}f_{0}(z)dz=2\pi iRes(f_{0}(z),2)=2\pi i\lim_{z\rightarrow 2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{\left |1-z^{2} \right |}e^{i\frac{arg(1-z^{2})}{2}}}=2\pi i\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}e^{i\frac{\pi}{2} }}=\frac{2\pi }{\sqrt{3}}$$
otherwise $\int_{-1 }^{1 }f_{0}(x){dx}+\int_{1 }^{-1}f_{1}(x){dx}=2I$
then I have the result that $I=\frac{1}{2}\frac{2\pi }{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{\pi }{\sqrt{3}}$
but $I$ is explicitly a negative and the true result is $-\frac{\pi }{\sqrt{3}}$
what's wrong?