The following is from Kenneth Kunen: Set theory - an introduction to independence proofs
$S$ is consistent iff for no $\phi$ does $S \vdash \phi$ and $S \vdash \neg \phi.$ If $S$ is inconsistent, then $S \vdash \psi$ for all $\psi$ and $S$ is thus of no interest. By formalizing reductio ad absurdum, one proves for any sentence $\phi$ that $S \vdash \phi$ iff $S \cup \{\neg \phi\}$ is inconsistent and $S \vdash \neg \phi$ iff $S \cup \{\phi\}$ is inconsistent.
I just wanted to justify the last statement.
If for any sentence $\phi,$ $S \vdash \phi$ then $S \nvdash \neg\phi.$ If $\phi_1$ is any sentence from $S,$ then $\phi_1 \wedge \neg\phi \rightarrow \psi$ for any $\psi.$ Thus if we define $S' = S \cup \{\neg \phi\},$ then $S' \vdash \psi$ for any $\psi.$ This means that $S'$ is inconsistent.
By a similar argument, I can prove the other claim - Am I right on this?