I'm a bit confused as to how to interpret $\delta$ and $\varepsilon$ mean in real analysis. My textbook gives an example demonstrating that $\frac{1}{x^2}$ is not uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
Definition of not uniformly continuous: $(\exists \varepsilon >0)(\forall \delta > 0)(\exists x)(\exists y)$ such that $|x-y| < \delta \implies |f(x) - f(y)| \geq \varepsilon$.
Let $\varepsilon = 1$ and $y = x + \frac{\delta}{2}$ and show that $\left\vert f(x) - f(x + \frac{\delta}{2}) \right\vert \geq 1.$
With some algebra we see that $\displaystyle 1 \leq \frac{\delta (2x+\frac{\delta}{2})}{2x^2(x+\frac{\delta}{2})^2}$.
Now my book makes the claim that it suffices to prove that the function is not uniformly continuous for $\delta < \frac{1}{2}$. My book picks $x = \delta$ and then $\displaystyle \frac{\delta (2\delta+\frac{\delta}{2})}{2\delta^2(\delta+\frac{\delta}{2})^2} = \frac{5}{9\delta^2} > 1$.
So I see that this shows that if $0 < \delta < \frac{1}{2}$ then $|f(\delta) - f(\delta + \frac{\delta}{2})| > 1$. But the inequality $\displaystyle \frac{5}{9\delta^2} > 1$ is not true if $\delta = 3/4$ and by definition it needs to be true for all $\delta > 0$.
So in general should I think of $\delta$ and $\varepsilon$ as positive numbers very very close to $0$? And why does it suffice to take $\delta < 1/2$?