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$\underline{\text{Motivation}:-}$

Recently I saw this video from Micheal Penn. After seeing the entire video I realized that all the things he did can be easily generalized.

In that video he showed,

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\sum_{m,n\ge 1}\frac{1}{mn(m+n)}=2\zeta(3)}$

So this is my motivation.

$\underline{\text{My work}:-}$

$■Claim:-$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\sum_{a_1,\dots, a_n\geq 1}\frac{1}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}a_i\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_i}}=n!\zeta(n+1)$

$■Proof:-$

$\textstyle\displaystyle{\sum_{a_1,\dots, a_n\geq 1}\frac{1}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}a_i\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_i}}$

$=\sum_{a_1=1}^{\infty}\cdots\sum_{a_n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{a_1\cdots a_n(a_1+\cdots+a_n)}$

Now we use the fact that $\textstyle\displaystyle{\frac{1}{n}=\int_{0}^{1}x^{n-1}dx}$

So we get,

$\sum_{a_1=1}^{\infty}\cdots\sum_{a_n=1}^{\infty}\left(\int_{0}^{1}x_1^{a_1-1}dx_1\cdots\int_{0}^{1}x_n^{a_n-1}dx_n\int_{0}^{1}y^{a_1+\cdots+a_n-1}dy\right)$

$=\int\cdots\int_{[0,1]^{n+1}}y^{n-1}\left(\sum_{a_1=1}^{\infty}x_1^{a_1-1}y^{a_1-1}\cdots\sum_{a_n=1}^{\infty}x_n^{a_n-1}y^{a_n-1}\right)dx_1\cdots dx_ndy$

Next we use the fact that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}x^{n-1}=\frac{1}{1-x}$

Giving us,

$\int\cdots\int_{[0,1]^{n+1}}\frac{y^{n-1}}{(1-x_1y)\cdots(1-x_ny)}dx_1\cdots dx_ndy$

$=\int_{0}^{1}y^{n-1}\prod_{k=1}^{n}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{1-x_1y}dx_kdy$

$=\int_{0}^{1}y^{n-1}\prod_{k=1}^{n}(-\frac{\ln(1-x_ky)}{y}\bigg|_{0}^{1})dy$

$=(-1)^n\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln^n(1-y)}{y}dy$

Substituting $z=1-y$ gives us,

$(-1)^n\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln^n(z)}{1-z}dz$

$=(-1)^n\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{1}z^k\ln^n(z)dz$

Substituting $u=-\ln(z)$ gives us,

$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}u^ne^{-(k+1)u}du$

Finally substituting $t=(k+1)u$ gives us,

$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(k+1)^{n+1}}\int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-t}dt$

$=n!\zeta(n+1)$

$\therefore\textstyle\displaystyle{\sum_{a_1,\dots, a_n\geq 1}\frac{1}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}a_i\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_i}}=n!\zeta(n+1)$

There is another way, if we take

$(-1)^n\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\ln^n(z)}{1-z}dz$

And instead turning it into a sum. We just substitute $u=-\ln(z)$ then we get,

$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{u^n}{e^u-1}du=\Gamma(n+1)\zeta(n+1)$

And since $n\in\mathbb{Z}^{+}$ we can write it as

$n!\zeta(n+1)$

$\underline{\text{My Question}:-}$

I would like to have my proof reviewed. But I am really asking for better ways to derive this.

0 Answers0