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Is the identity the only matrix $A \in \mathbb R^{n \times n}$ with real positive eigenvalues that is equal to its inverse?

Thanks.

roger
  • 2,964

2 Answers2

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Yes. If a matrix squares to the identity all of its eigenvalues are $\pm 1$, so in your case, all eigenvalues are $+1$. Now consider the Jordan normal form of $A$; if any Jordan block is different from the identity, then $A^2 \not= I$, so the Jordan normal form of $A$ is the identity matrix, and therefore $A$ itself is the identity.

fuglede
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If $A^2-I=0$, the minimal polynomial $m_A(x)$ of $A$ divides $x^2-1$. Yet $x+1$ is not a factor of $m_A(x)$ because $-1$ is not an eigenvalue of $A$. Hence $m_A(x)=x-1$, i.e. $A=I$.

user1551
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