Let $M$ be a compact connected $4$-manifold such that $H_2(M;\mathbb{F}_2)$ is non-zero. Show that the cup product map $H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \times H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \to H^4(M;\mathbb{F}_2)$ given by $(x, x) \mapsto x \cup x$ is surjective.
Now by Poincaré Duality we know that $H^4(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \cong H_0(M;\mathbb{F}_2) = \mathbb{F}_2$. So it suffices to show that there exists an $x \in H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2)$ which is non-zero such that $x \cup x \neq 0$.
I know that we have the mod-$2$ Poincaré Duality pairing isomorphism $$H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \xrightarrow{\cong} \operatorname{Hom}(H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2), \mathbb{F}_2)$$ given by $$\alpha \mapsto \langle \alpha, \_\ \rangle : H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \to \mathbb{F}_2$$ where $\langle \alpha, \_\ \rangle : H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \to \mathbb{F}_2$ is in addition given by $$\langle \alpha, \beta \rangle = \Phi(\alpha \cup \beta)[M]$$ where $\Phi : H^4(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \to \operatorname{Hom}(H_4(M;\mathbb{F}_2), \mathbb{F}_2)$ is the surjective map occurring in the universal coefficients theorem and $[M]$ is the fundamental class.
I guess that if all $x \in H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2)$ has the property that $x \cup x = 0$ then we'd get a contradiction from the mod-$2$ Poincaré Duality pairing isomorphism, but I do not see where the contradiction would occur.
For example if $x \neq 0 \in H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2)$ and $x \cup x = 0$, then $\langle x, x \rangle = 0$. If I could show that $\langle x, \_ \rangle : H^2(M;\mathbb{F}_2) \to \mathbb{F}_2$ however was the zero morphism then I'd have the needed contradiction, however I don't see why this would be the case.
$\smile$) instead of $\cup$ like most books! :) – C.F.G Sep 17 '21 at 06:13