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I need to show that $f(x_1,...,x_n)= \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i^\frac{1}{p}$ is concave (for $x_i>0$ and $p>1$) without using any derivatives.

I have attempted to prove that the secant line lies below the curve for the one-variable function $x \in R_+^*\mapsto x^\frac{1}{p}$ but am stuck.

Any suggestions would be much appreciated !

Adam Rubinson
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Padawan
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  • Welcome the Maths Stack Exchange. Without looking too deeply into the problem, I would imagine that proving that $x^p$ is convex for $p >1, x > 0$ is easier, and then use the fact that the inverse of a function that is convex is concave. Then you will have expressed $f$ as the sum of concave functions. – user2628206 Sep 26 '21 at 12:07

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