If $f(z)$ is defined in the unit disk such that both $f^2(z)$ and $f^3(z)$ are analytic in the disk. is $f(z)$ analytic in the disk?
Attempt: If $f(z) \ne 0$ in the disk, then $f(z) = \dfrac{f^3(z)}{f^2(z)}$ must be analytic.
Hence, any counterexample involving $f$ must be such that $f(z) = 0$ at least one point in the disk.
Any hints on how to to move forward from here?