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In this post someone suggested:

"$z\mapsto z^2$"

where both $z$ and $z^2$ are in $\mathbb{S^1}$ (unless I missed something).

Does this mean that they suggested: $z^2 = (z_1^2, z_2^2)$?

If not, what is it?

Anon
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$$z\in S^1 \implies z\in\mathbb C\implies z^2\in\mathbb C;$$$$\\z\in\mathbb C\kern.6em\not\kern-.6em\implies z^2\in\mathbb C^2.$$

ryang
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As in the comments is already pointed out $z^2$ means $z\cdot z$.

You suggestest $(z_1^2,z_2^2)$. That's not how the multiplication in $\mathbb C$ works. It's actually $(x^2-y^2,2xy)$ if $z=(x,y)=x+iy$.