I have watched Veritasium's recent video on the Collatz conjecture. At 11m17s, he mentions that if you can show that for every seed value, there is at some point a number less than the seed value in the sequence generated by the Collatz function, then you've proven the conjecture. Doesn't this condition preclude a loop?
If I have some loop, won't it at some point include a reduction in value? For example, if I have a loop that goes $12 \to 15 \to 64 \to 72 \to 12$ can't I just say, well $72$ is my seed value, since $12 < 72$, then $72$ must reduce, and all the other values in the loop reduce as well?
I understand its a popular video, and it's not a precise definition, but it seems like a rather simple statement. I'm just a little confused by what he said, not sure if there's a second unstated condition or if I'm misunderstanding.