The probability density function of $$f(x,y) = \begin{cases} 1/x^2, & \text{if }0 \le x \le a\text{ if }0 \le y \le a \\ 0, & \text{otherwise} \\ \end{cases} $$
How can you prove that $|X-Y|$ and $\min(X,Y)$ have the same distribution function?
I tried:
Firstly $f(x)=1/a$, $f(y)=1/a$, so CDF for $f(x)$ is $x/a$ CDF for $f(y)$ is $y/a$ right??
$Z=\min(X,Y)$ The CDF of $\min(X,Y)= \Pr(Z < z)=1-(1-\Pr(X < z))(1-\Pr(Y < z))$ because at least one must be smaller than $z$, to be included in the CDF of $\min(X,Y)$
$=1-(1-x/a)(1-y/a)$,
But I am stuck with finding the CDF for $|X-Y|$. And finding the CDF for $|X-Y|$, will I have to derivate both CDFs in terms of both $x$ and $y$, and get to the same function? I am really stuck, I hope someone can help. Thanks