Let's consider the equation in the complex variable $w$ $$\alpha+\frac{w}{4\pi}+\frac{e^{-2\beta w}}{8\pi\beta}=0$$ with $\alpha$ and $\beta$ real parameters, $\beta>0$. By writing $w=a+ib$, it can be put in the form $$\frac{e^{-2\beta (a+ib)}}{2\beta}=-4\pi\alpha-a-ib.$$ Equating, modulus ad phase of the two sides, I get $$\begin{cases} \frac{e^{-4\beta a}}{4\beta^2}=(4\pi\alpha+a)^2+b^2\\ -2\beta b=\arctan{\frac{b}{4\pi\alpha+a}}+\pi \end{cases}$$ In the second equation, if I move $\pi$ to the first side and take the tangent of both sides I get $$-\tan{2\beta b}=\frac{b}{4\pi\alpha+a},$$ since the tangent is $\pi$-periodic. I am not sure about this last passage. If this is right, proceding in the same manner I get that the equation $$\alpha+\frac{w}{4\pi}-\frac{e^{-2\beta w}}{8\pi\beta}=0,$$ has the same set of solution of the previous one (I just don't jave the $\pi$ added in the phase equation). Is this statement correct or the passage I was dubious about is wrong (and maybe introduces spurious solutions)?
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Even if this does not look of much interest to you, I added a quite efficient solution method at the end of my answer. – Claude Leibovici Oct 13 '21 at 02:58
1 Answers
In my humble opinion, it is easier to work without the modulus (but I may be wrong).
Considering the equation $$\alpha+\frac{w}{4\pi}+\frac{e^{-2\beta w}}{8\pi\beta}=0$$
Making $w=a+ib$ and expanding, you have $$\Big[e^{-2 a \beta } \cos (2 b \beta )+2 a \beta +8 \pi \alpha \beta\Big]+i \Big[2 b \beta -e^{-2 a \beta } \sin (2 b \beta )\Big]=0$$ Using the imaginary part $$2 b \beta -e^{-2 a \beta } \sin (2 b \beta )=0 \implies a=-\frac{\log (2 b \beta \csc (2 b \beta ))}{2 \beta }$$ Plug this in the real part to obtain $$8 \pi \alpha \beta +2 b \beta \cot (2 b \beta )-\log (2 b \beta \csc (2 b \beta))=0$$
To simplify notations, let $x=2 b \beta$ and you are left with the equation $$8 \pi \alpha \beta +x \cot (x)-\log (x \csc (x))=0$$ which can only be solved using numerical methods in the range $0\leq x \leq \pi$ in order to find the zero of function $$f(x)=x \cot (x)-\log (x \csc (x))+k\qquad \text{with} \qquad k=8 \pi \alpha \beta $$
This equation is rather easy to solve since, using Padé approximants, we have $$x \cot (x)-\log (x \csc (x))\sim \frac{947 x^4-20718 x^2+34020}{38 x^4-3708 x^2+34020}$$ and the estimate is given solving a quadratic equation in $x^2$; to plish the root, Newton method should work like a charm.
Trying with $k=5.678$
$$\left( \begin{array}{cc} n & x_n \\ 0 & 2.584818520 \\ 1 & 2.579994586 \\ 2 & 2.579957834 \\ 3 & 2.579957832 \end{array} \right)$$
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Thanks for the answer. Since your expression for $a$ in terms of $b$ is different from mine, it seems that my procedure is wrong. My real interest is more in why my procedure is wromg than in the actual answer. Can you help me understand why I am wrong? – SpuriousMatemagician Oct 12 '21 at 06:46