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Find two functions $f, g: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} $ which satisfy the condition: $$ f(x+y) = g\left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\right)(xy)^{2008} $$

The first one I thought of was this: $$ f(x)=x^{2008}, g(x)=x^{2008} $$ or $$ f \equiv 0, g \equiv 0 $$ Then, I tried: $$ P(x, y): f(x+y) = g\left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\right)(xy)^{2008} \\ P(1, 1): f(2)=g(2). \\ P(x, -x): f(0)=x^{4016}g(0) \\ \implies f(0)=0, g(0)=0 \ (\because P(x, -x) \text{ should be true for all } x \ \in \mathbb{R} \text{.}) \\ P\left(x, \frac{1}{x}\right): f\left( x + \frac {1}{x} \right) = g\left(x + \frac {1}{x}\right) $$

Help me solving this.

p.s. I'm looking for the process of finding the function, and the functions which I am finding are "all functions that can exist".

RDK
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  • If $g$ is homogeneous of degree $2008$, i.e. $g(rx)=r^{2008}g(x)$ for all $r,x$, then $g(1/x+1/y)(xy)^{2008}=g(x+y)$, so it suffices to take $f=g$. – Redundant Aunt Oct 12 '21 at 08:16
  • @Math Can you be more specific about what kind of help you need? You have already found examples that provide answers to your question. – PierreCarre Oct 12 '21 at 08:23
  • @PierreCarre I am looking for the perfect proof for this problem. – RDK Oct 12 '21 at 08:24
  • @Math There is no "proof" here... you are asked for an example, I don't see how it get get much cleaner than $f=g=0$. – PierreCarre Oct 12 '21 at 08:27
  • @PierreCarre The proof I am looking for is the process of getting those functions, and I am looking for all functions that can exist. – RDK Oct 12 '21 at 08:28
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    Yout last case is very useful. Taking various values of $x$ you can make $x+1/x$ any from $(-\infty;-2]\cup[2;+\infty)$. So if $|x|\geq 2$, $g(x)=f(x)$. Other values of $g(x)$ can be ontained by taking $x=y=2/t \Rightarrow f(4/t)=g(t)\cdot (2/t)^{4016} \Rightarrow g(t)=f(4/t)\cdot (t/2)^{4016} \Rightarrow$ $g(4/t)=f(t)\cdot (2/t)^{4016} \Rightarrow$ $g(t) g(4/t) = f(t) f(4/t)$. At least one of numbers $t$ and $4/t$ is from $(-\infty;-2]\cup[2;+\infty)$, so $f(t)=g(t)$ for any $t$ (if only there are no zeroes in $f(t)$, $f(4/t)$). – Ivan Kaznacheyeu Oct 12 '21 at 08:29
  • @PierreCarre Alright, thanks for modifying – RDK Oct 12 '21 at 08:30
  • @IvanKaznacheyeu I'm having trouble understanding here... Can you post it as an answer? – RDK Oct 12 '21 at 08:34
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    After obtaining $f(x)=g(x)$ you can take $y=x/(x-1)$ for any $x\neq 1$ to obtain $f(x^2/(x-1))=f(1) (x^2/(x-1))^{2008}$ – Ivan Kaznacheyeu Oct 12 '21 at 08:37
  • @IvanKaznacheyeu I think you solved this one... But still, I'm having trouble. Can you please post your process you have found the functions as an answer? – RDK Oct 12 '21 at 08:40

1 Answers1

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Let find $y$ such that $x+y=xy\Rightarrow y=\frac{x}{x-1}$.

One can take $y=\frac{x}{x-1}$ for $x\neq 0$, $x\neq 1$, then

$$f\left(x+\frac{x}{x-1}\right)=g\left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{x-1}{x}\right)\cdot\left(x\cdot \frac{x}{x-1}\right)^{2008}\Rightarrow$$

$$f\left(\frac{x^2}{x-1}\right)=g(1)\cdot \left(\frac{x^2}{x-1}\right)^{2008}$$

$t=\frac{x^2}{x-1}$ could be any in $(-\infty;0)\cup[4;+\infty)$, so at least for such $t$: $f(t)=g(1)\cdot t^{2008}$.

Let find $y$ such that $x+y=-xy\Rightarrow y=-\frac{x}{x+1}$.

One can take $y=-\frac{x}{x+1}$ for $x\neq 0$, $x\neq -1$, then

$$f\left(x-\frac{x}{x+1}\right)=g\left(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{x+1}{x}\right)\cdot\left(-x\cdot \frac{x}{x+1}\right)^{2008}\Rightarrow$$

$$f\left(\frac{x^2}{x+1}\right)=g(-1)\cdot \left(\frac{x^2}{x+1}\right)^{2008}$$

$t=\frac{x^2}{x+1}$ could be any in $(-\infty;-4]\cup(0;+\infty)$, so at least for such $t$: $f(t)=g(-1)\cdot t^{2008}$.

For any $t>4$: $f(t)=g(-1)\cdot t^{2008}=g(1)\cdot t^{2008}$, therefore $g(-1)=g(1)=a$.

For any $t\neq 0$: $f(t)=a t^{2008}$.

Taking $y=-x$ one can obtain $f(0)=g(0)=0$, so $f(t)=a t^{2008}$ for any $t$.

Taking $y=1/x$: $f(x^2+1/x)=g(x^2+1/x)$

Equation $x^2+1/x=t$ has solution for $x$ for any $t\in(-\infty;-2]\cup[2;\infty)$, so $f(t)=g(t)$ for any $t$ such that $|t|\geq 2$.

Taking $y=x$: $f(2x)=g(2/x)\cdot x^{4016}$.

Using $x=t$ and $x=1/t$ in last equation, one can get $f(2t)=g(2/t)\cdot t^{4016}$ and $f(2/t)=g(2t)\cdot (\frac{1}{t})^{4016}$. Multiplying these equations gives $f(2t)\cdot f(2/t)=g(2/t)\cdot g(2t)$.

Using $t$ such that $|2t|\geq 2$ last equation transforms to $f(2t)\cdot f(2/t)=g(2/t)\cdot f(2t)$. $a\neq 0$, then $f(2/t)=g(2/t)$. If $|2t|\geq 2$ then $|t| \geq 1$, $|1/t| \leq 1$, $|2/t| \leq 2$. So $f(x)=g(x)$ for any $x\neq 0$ such that $|x|\leq 2$.

So $g(x)=f(x)$ for any $x$ except case $a=0$.

If $a=0$ then $f(x)=0$ and $g(x)=0$ because $t=\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}$ can take any value $t\neq 0$ and $g(0)=0$.

The final answer: $f(x)=g(x)=a x^{2008}$, $a$ is arbitrary real constant.

RDK
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