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I am a beginning learner of commutative algebra, using the book commutative algebra by Matsumura. In the book he often refers $\operatorname{Spec}(k[x_1,\ldots, x_m])$ to an affine plane where $k$ is a field. But I do not understand how this identification works. Is there a canonical isomorphism (or homeomorphism) between $\operatorname{Spec}(k[x_1,\ldots,x_n])$ and $\mathbb A^n(k)$?

I understand that when $k$ is algebraically closed, then by Hilbert Nullstellensatz we can identify the maximal ideals with points in $k^n$ but not sure if it is related to this identification of prime ideals and $\mathbb A^n(k)$.

Moreover, the book has an example on $k[x]$: If we put $x_1=x(x-1)$ and $x_2=x^2(x-2)$ then $\operatorname{Spec}(k[x_1, x_2])$ is the affine curve $x_1^3-x_2^2+x_1x_2=0.$ I kinda see this is the relation that $x_1$ and $x_2$ satisfies but still do not see how the prime ideals can be associated with the curve formally. I guess this is a elementary and standard picture in one's mind but I do not see a mapping which makes this picture formal as a beginner. Please correct me or provide me with any sort of insights.

KReiser
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JKDASF
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    Some formatting notes: please use $\operatorname{Spec}$ to format $\operatorname{Spec}$, and please use markdown to format non-math text instead of MathJax. – KReiser Oct 13 '21 at 07:29

2 Answers2

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I like the functor of points perspective. You want to think of affine space as $k^n$, or more generally $R^n$ for a ring $R$. The "universal affine space" $\operatorname{Spec} k[x_1, ... , x_n]$, as a scheme over $k$, has the property that for any $k$-algebra $R$, there is a natural bijection of sets

$$\operatorname{Hom}_{\textrm{$k$-schemes}}(\operatorname{Spec} R, \operatorname{Spec} k[x_1, ... , x_n]) = R^n. $$

This is because the set on the left is naturally in bijection with

$$\operatorname{Hom}_{\textrm{$k$-alg}}(k[x_1, ... , x_n], R)$$

and a $k$-algebra homomorphism is completely determined by where it sends $x_1, ... , x_n$.

D_S
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    This is a good answer but I think it is more difficult for a starter to understand. – WhatsUp Oct 13 '21 at 04:47
  • I have not seen schemes and not sure why the "natural bijection" is true. But the rest of the answer is totally understandable. Thank you! – JKDASF Oct 13 '21 at 05:39
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    If you continue studying commutative algebra, you'll learn it at some point. For any ring $R$, $\operatorname{Spec} R$ is naturally a topological space, but it is possible to put the additional structure of a "locally ringed space" on it to make $\operatorname{Spec} R$ into what is called a "scheme," designed specifically so that the above bijection holds. – D_S Oct 13 '21 at 16:26
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The association is $(a_1, \dots, a_n) \to (x_1 - a_1, \dots, x_n - a_n)$. The subspace topology of maximal ideals then coincides with the Zariski topology on the points.

For your second question, let

$$A = k[x,y]/(x^3 - y^2 +xy) \; .$$

By setting $t = y/x$ we get $t(t-1) = \frac{y^2 - yx}{x^2} = x$, and $t^2(t-1) = \frac{y^3 - y^2 x}{x^3} = y \frac{x^3}{x^3} = y$

$$\overline{x} = t(t-1), \overline{y} = t^2 (t - 1) \; ,$$ so $A \cong k[t(t-1), t^2 (t-1)]$.

Now, recall that the Spec of $R/I$ is $V(I)$, the set of prime ideals containing $I$. In our case, the maximal ideals containing $I = (x^3 - y^2 + xy) = (f(x, y))$ are precisely of the form $(x - a, y - b)$ as you remarked (corresponding to points), but this tells us that such points $(a, b)$ satisfy this equation of the contained ideal, since $f(x, y) = p(x, y)(x - a) + q(x, y)(y - b)$, thus we have an association with the curve.

By the way, this is just my preference but I read a little of Matsumura and found it hard for a first time in commutative algebra, I prefer Atiyah-Macdonald much more.

  • Thanks for the reply! But I still have a question on your first point, I understand that we can have correspondece between points and maximal ideals. But isn't Spec the space of prime ideals? For example $(0)$ is a prime ideal but not a maximal one. How do we identify $(0)\in$Spec$(k[x])$ with a point? – JKDASF Oct 13 '21 at 04:47
  • This is the main difference between schemes and varieties. The non-maximal prime ideals actually correspond to subvarieties, rather than "points". To view it in the other way, each prime ideal corresponds to a subvariety, and "points" are just "minimal subvarieties". – WhatsUp Oct 13 '21 at 04:52
  • @WhatsUp I see. So maybe we can view it as assigning each irreducible polynomials to the zero locus of the ideal generated by that polynomial. And I know closed points in Spec$(A)$ are maximal ideals. So in this case closed points in Spec$(A)$ are exactly "points" in $k^n$. And $(0)$ is just $k^n$. – JKDASF Oct 13 '21 at 05:10
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    Yes, that's it. As long as you keep learning, you will get clearer picture of what's going on, so don't worry too much at the beginning. – WhatsUp Oct 13 '21 at 05:14
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    @JKDASF And prime ideals between maximal ideals and $(0)$ correspond to hypersurfaces in $k^n$ of different dimensions. (Not the collection of points that make up the hypersurface, but the hypersurface itself. If that makes sense.). At least for algebraically closed $k$. The moment $k$ isn't algebraically closed, the algebra-geometry correspondence gets more complicated. – Arthur Oct 13 '21 at 05:33