I've been trying to figure out how to solve this: $$\int\limits_{2}^{\infty} \frac{x}{(x+1)\ln(x)}dx = \int\limits_{2}^{\infty} f(x) dx$$ My approach has been to define a $g(x) \ : \ 0 \leq f(x) \leq k g(x)$ as $g(x)=\frac{1}{ln(x)}$ since $\frac{x}{x+1}$ goes to $1$ as $x \rightarrow \infty$.
I've found that $\int\limits_{2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{ln(x)}=li(x)$ that diverges, BUT, are there different ways to solve this? Like ways to get that the integral of ln(x) diverges, or different approaches that doesn't need to answer the former question?