I rewrote the limit
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} x\left(\arctan\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)-\frac\pi 4\right) =\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\left(\arctan\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)-\frac\pi 4\right)}{\frac 1x},$$
noting that both the numerator and denominator tend to zero as $x\rightarrow \infty$ so that the conditions for L’Hospital’s rule are fulfilled. However, differentiating top and bottom then yields:
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\left(\arctan\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)-\frac\pi 4\right)}{\frac 1x}=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\frac{1}{1+\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)^2}}{-\frac 1{x^2}}=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{-x^2(x+2)^2}{(x+2)^2+(x+1)^2}=\infty,$$
which is incorrect. What went wrong?