Your approach is reasonable, though some of the notation in the intermediate steps is suspect. For instance $[\ln(y)']/dx$ is a strange mix of Leibniz and Newton notation.
The key point is that the equation
$$x \ln x = \ln y(x)$$
is true for all $x$, and so you can differentiate both sides with respect to $x$. (In general, you can differentiate both sides when they are both equal as functions of $x$. You cannot differentiate if they are equal only for one particular value of $x$).
$$\frac{d}{dx}\left(x \ln x\right) = \frac{d}{dx}\left(\ln y(x)\right),$$
where I've written $y(x)$ instead of $y$ on the RHS to remind myself that $y$ is not an independent variable: it's a function, dependent on $x$. Carrying out the derivatives then gets you to the last part of your proof,
$$\ln x + 1 = \frac{1}{y(x)} \frac{dy}{dx}.$$