I have two equations in $x$ and $y$ in terms of some parameter $t$ as under $$ x(t)=-a.sin(at)-a\ \text{and}\\ y(t)=a.cos(at) .$$ Is it possible to eliminate t and find the relation between $x$ and $y$ in $y=f(x)$ or $f(x,y)=0$?Are there some general methods to achieve that end.Thank you in adavance for your responces and comments.
-
1Hint. Use the fact $\sin(at)^2+\cos(at)^2=1$ – Cesareo Oct 31 '21 at 11:39
-
It is not possible to have $y=f(x)$ for these, since the points $(x(t), y(t))$ on the parametrized curve are not "right unique". For example, $(-a, a)$ and $(-a,-a)$ are both on the curve. It is possible to solve for $y=f(x)$ on some segments of the curve, restricting $c\le t \le d$ so that all points on that segment are right unique. – Joe Oct 31 '21 at 11:59
2 Answers
$$ x(t)=(-a\sin(at)-a) \\ \text{and} \\ y(t)=a\cos(at). $$ $$ \left\{ \begin{array}{l} x(t)=-a\sin(at)-a,\\ y(t)=a\cos(at).\\ \end{array} \right. \iff \left\{ \begin{array}{l} -\frac{x(t)}{a}-1=\sin(at),\\ \frac{y(t)}{a}=\cos(at).\\ \end{array} \right. \iff \left\{ \begin{array}{l} t=\frac{\arcsin\left(-\frac{x(t)}{a}-1\right)}{a},\\ \frac{y(t)}{a}=\cos(at).\\ \end{array} \right. \iff \\ \iff \left\{ \begin{array}{l} t=\frac{\arcsin\left(-\frac{x(t)}{a}-1\right)}{a},\\ \frac{y(t)}{a}=\cos({\arcsin\left(-\frac{x(t)}{a}-1\right)}).\\ \end{array} \right. \iff \left\{ \begin{array}{l} t=\frac{\arcsin\left(-\frac{x(t)}{a}-1\right)}{a},\\ \frac{y(t)}{a}=\left(1-\left(-\frac{x(t)}{a}-1\right)^{2}\right)^{0.5}.\\ \end{array} \right. \iff \\ \iff \left\{ \begin{array}{l} t=\frac{\arcsin\left(-\frac{x(t)}{a}-1\right)}{a},\\ {y}=a\left(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{2x}{a}\right)^{0.5}.\\ \end{array} \right. $$ So we get that $$ \bbox[lightgreen] { {y}=a\left(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{2x}{a}\right)^{0.5}. } $$ Good luck!
- 1,443
Due to the transcendental nature of equations $a$ cannot be eliminated resulting into elementary functions. We use numerical methods to find such solutions. E.g., Newton-Raphson, Regula Falsi etc.
Using identity $ \sin ^2 at + \cos^2 at =1 $ we obtain the eliminant Circle without a need to carry out such an elimination.
$$ \frac{(x+a)^2}{a^2}+ \frac{y^2}{a^2}=1$$
- 40,495
