first of all, I searched that question, could not find any.
If by any chance you find, I ask you, "Dont close thread cus of duplicate, because I want to understand myself".
I have this question:
With induction, proof the following this:
$fᵤ(x) = f(· · ·(f(x)))$
When:
$$f(x)=-\frac{x}{1+x}$$
and $x≠-1$
and I get:
$f_n(x) = f(\cdots(f(x))\cdots)$ which equals ( = ) $n$
I know how to do induction.
but, my problem is understand what I am supposed to do here.
Can I get any tip? not an answer, only a tip.
I tried doing something like that:
$f((f(x)) $= ( put the X of $f(x)$ in here).
got: $f((f(x)) = 1/x$
after it, tried again, for:
$f(f(f(x)))$ = and when X, put the x of $f(f(x))$, got something else.
tried doing base induction, $n=0$ ( thats the examples I got before of $f(f(x))$ and $f(f(f(x)))$
but something really is weird in this question.. Will be happy to get a tip. thanks!