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The wolfram page http://mathworld.wolfram.com/DivergenceTheorem.html states the formula $$ \int_{V} \nabla \cdot \mathbf{F} dS = \int_{\partial V} \mathbf{F} \cdot d\mathbf{S} $$ but it does not speak much of what kind of conditions should be imposed on $\mathbf{F}, V$ and so on.

I think it is enough for $\mathbf{F}$ to be continuously differentiable over $V$ (is it?). But what should be on $V$?

Q1) Is it enough for $V$ to have $\partial V$ as a parametrized (smooth) surface (even piecewise)?

Q2) (It may be a topological one.) But my textbook says a parametrized surface is the image of a continuously differentiable mapping $\mathbf{r} : \mathcal{R} \to \mathbb{R}^3$ where $\mathcal{R}$ is a region (i.e., open, bounded, its boundary having Jordan content 0) in $\mathbb{R}^2$. Then can a sphere have a parametrization?

Q3) What should be the exact imposition on $\mathbf{F}$ including how to specify its domain?

(I hope you'd not talk about manifolds and forms and other complex definitions...)

Micah
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le4m
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1 Answers1

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  1. Yes, Divergence theorem is good for "piecewise smooth" domain, namely Lipschitz domain, for example, a regular polyhedron.

  2. The unit $2$-sphere's most common parametrization: $$ \mathbf{\Phi}: [0,\pi]\times [0,2\pi] \to \mathbb{R}^3\\ (u,v)\mapsto(\sin v \cos u, \sin v \sin u, \cos v) $$ has two artificial singularities at two poles $(0,0,\pm 1)$ (in $xyz$-coordinates).

  3. Normally we require $\mathbf{F}$ to be smooth on $V$ and continuous up to the boundary. However if we are allowed to go to the realm of weak derivatives, the weak divergence of certain $\mathbf{F}$ has the exact form of Divergence theorem as well. A sufficient requirement for this is that $\nabla \cdot \mathbf{F} \in L^1(V)$, $\mathbf{F}\cdot \mathbf{n}\in L^1(\partial V)$, and $\mathbf{F}\cdot \mathbf{n}$ is continuous on any surface lying within $V$.

Shuhao Cao
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  • An extra question. Do we have to (or had better) assume $V$ is an open set so that the derivative of $\mathbf{F}$ (including its partial ones) can be properly defined on its domain? – le4m Jun 27 '13 at 03:19
  • @julypraise Yes we have to, not just had better. – Shuhao Cao Jun 27 '13 at 03:52
  • @ShuhaoCao Can you point me to a reference in the literature about your third point? I need exactly a proof of that claim! – Bob May 14 '21 at 14:07