I had an assignment where I had to calculate the probability that B brings more tails if B tosses a fair coin n+1 times than A who tosses the coin n times. That probability was $\frac{1}{2}$.
Our professor suggested that the other way round question (that is: A tosses n, B tosses n+1, what's the probability A brings more tails than B?) is a more difficult one and I became curious. I tried using the probability I've already found by following the thought process below:
Assume A and B both have the same probability to bring more tails than the other (by symmetry). Let E be the situation where A gets more tails than B, so:
$\mathbb{P}[A_T > B_T] = 1 - \mathbb{P}[A_T \leq B_T]$
However, I know that $\ \{ A_T \leq B_T \} = \{ A_T < B_T \} \cup \{ A_T = B_T \} $.
I know the probability $\mathbb{P}[A_T < B_T]$ from the assignment question, so I went on to look for $\mathbb{P}[A_T = B_T]$. Both $A_T$ and $B_T$ follow a binomial distribution, so I went ahead and calculated that, but the result is attrocious.
I went on here and found this question, which is the same: What is the probability to get more heads in n-1 tosses than in n tosses ? (fair coin) , but the answer provided was a bit difficult for me, as I don't know what $C_n$ is. Our professor also suggested that the correct answer is again $\frac{1}{2}$, so I'm not sure.
(Sorry in advance if uploading the same question is invalid, but I couldn't understand the explanation provided and seeing as it's from 2018 I'm unsure whether I'll get an answer. :/)