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In the book Introduction to Lie Algebras by Erdmann and Wildon, one finds the following result: given $V$ a complex vector space and $L$ a Lie subalgebra of $\mathfrak{gl}(V)$, if $tr(xy) = 0\,\, \forall x\in L', y \in L, $ then $L$ is solvable. At the end of the proof one reads the following:

$$p(ad(x)) = \overline {ad(d)} = ad(\bar d) \quad (1)$$

I have problems in understanding the both equalities. With $p$ is meant a polynomial in $C[X]$ with $p(x) =\overline d$, $ad$ is the adjoint homomorphism, $d$ is the diagonalizable endomorphism in the Jordan decomposition $\overline d$ is its complex conjugate and $L'$ is the derived Lie ALgebra of $L$.

I wanted first to exploit the relation, $p(x) = \overline d$. We get $ad (p(x)) = ad(\overline d). $ Thus, we have the right hand side of (1). We are done if we prove that $p(ad(x)) = ad (p(x)).$ It suffices to provide a counterexample such as $p(x) = x^2,$ showing that the last equality does not hold in general.

Can somebody provide an explicit proof of $(1)$?

Thanks.

Correction: Since $x = d + n$ and given a lemma, according to which, $ad\, x = ad\, d + ad\, n$, the first equality in (1) is straightforward. It only remains to prove the right equality in (1)

user249018
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  • Do I understand correctly your only problem is to see $ad(\overline{d}) = \overline{ad(d)}$ for a diagonal matrix $d$ now? Isn't that straightforward from how $ad(d)$ operates on, say, all $E_{ij}$? – Torsten Schoeneberg Nov 18 '21 at 06:35

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