The idea here is this: we know that $x^2\rightarrow0$ as $x\rightarrow0$; we also know that no matter what $x$ happens to be,
$$
-1\leq\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\leq 1.\tag{1}
$$
So, no matter what the cosine term does, it cannot "overrule" the tendency of $x^2$ to take us to 0.
To use the definition: let $\epsilon>0$ be given. We want to show that if $x$ is close enough to 0, then $x^2\cos(\frac{1}{x})$ is within $\epsilon$ of 0 - in other words, that $\lvert x^2\cos(\frac{1}{x})\rvert<\epsilon$. But, by the inequalities in (1), $\lvert\cos(\frac{1}{x})\rvert\leq 1$. See if you can use this inequality, along with a proof that $x^2\rightarrow0$ as $x\rightarrow0$, to finish the problem.
Hint: $\delta$ here will be completely determined by the $x^2$ term after you apply the inequality.