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Consider a cubic $C$ of the form $$F(u, v) = u^3 + v^3 - \alpha = 0.$$ The Weierstrass equation is claimed to be $$y^2 = x^3 - 432 \alpha^2.$$ I've been trying to prove this, following the procedure outlined by Silverman--Tate's Rational Points on Elliptic Curves, p. 23. However, I cannot get it to work.

First, homogenize the equation to get $$F(U, V, W) = U^3 + V^3 - \alpha W^3 = 0.$$ We start with a rational point $P = [1, -1, 0]$, and we declare the line $Z = 0$ to be the tangent line to this rational point. Explicitly then, $$Z = \frac{\partial F}{\partial U} \bigg|_{P}(U - 1) + \frac{\partial F}{\partial V} \bigg|_{P}(V + 1) + \frac{\partial F}{\partial W}\bigg|_{P}(W - 0) = 3U + 3V.$$ We take $Y = 0$ to be any line other than $Z = 0$ going through $P$. Let me arbitrarily take $Y = U + V + W$ then. As for the line $X = 0$, usually you would look at the intersection of $C$ with $Z = 0$; you'd find that, apart from $P$, you'll get some other intersection $Q$, and $X = 0$ must be any other line through $Q$. But $P$ is an inflection point, giving us freedom to take $X = 0$ to by any line not containing $P$. So let's just take $X = U$.

Our coordinate change can be captured as $$ \begin{pmatrix} X \\ Y \\ Z \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 3 & 3 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} U \\ V \\ W \end{pmatrix}.$$ We invert the matrix to obtain the equations $$\begin{split} U &= X \\ V &= -X + \frac{1}{3} Z \\ W &= Y - \frac{1}{3} Z \end{split}$$ which we substitute into $F(U, V, W)$. According to Silverman--Tate, the result should then be an equation of the form $$F'(X, Y, Z) = XY^2 + Z \cdot(\text{quadratic equation in $X,Y,Z$}) = 0,$$ which can then be simplified using algebra. But this doesn't happen. When I substitute, I instead obtain an equation of the form $$-\alpha Y^3 + Z \cdot(\text{quadratic equation in $X,Y,Z$}) = 0.$$

Question: Am I doing something wrong? If not, then how should I deal with this?

Upon inspection, I think it's not surprising that this happens. A priori, the equation $F'(X,Y,Z)$ will tautologically be of the form $$F'(X, Y, Z) = c_1 X^3 + c_2 X^2 Y + c_3 XY^2 + c_4 Y^3 + c_5 Z \cdot (\text{quadratic}) = 0.$$ But this equation must vanish on $P = [1, 0, 0]$ and $Q = [0, 1, 0]$ forcing $c_1$ and $c_4$ to be $0$, and $c_2$ must also be $0$ because $F'(X, Y, 0)$ must have a second-order root at $Y = 0$. However, the vanishing of $c_4$ fails precisely when we have an inflection point, since there won't be a point $Q$ anymore. My guess, then, is that I'm not making a mistake, but rather I'm dealing with a situation that the book doesn't cover in detail.

Jim
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  • Related if not a duplicate. – Jyrki Lahtonen Nov 22 '21 at 17:51
  • A related example. I think the method is the same. Based on looking for functions with appropriate pole divisors at an inflection point. – Jyrki Lahtonen Nov 22 '21 at 17:53
  • @JyrkiLahtonen Thanks. Your approach using pole divisors was quite interesting and I might hope if I could make this work. Still, I'd be curious to know what Tate--Silverman had in mind when they wrote this example. Certainly the approach must've been something geometric, since they don't assume any knowledge about divisors or poles. (In fact they left the computation as Exercise 1.13(a).) – Jim Nov 23 '21 at 08:51
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    I'm sure some of our users own a copy of Silverman-Tate, can look this up, and say something more. I recall having had similar problems back in the day with the cubic Fermat curve ($a=1$), and resorted to some ad hoc tricks. I will be visiting my office today, and can check, if I relocate my old seminar notes. – Jyrki Lahtonen Nov 23 '21 at 09:12

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