Not sure if the following is simple enough for you. I'll be using the convergence of these well-known integrals:
$$I_1=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\,dx\qquad I_2=\int_0^{\infty}\cos(x^2)\,dx $$
(They are called Dirichlet integral and Fresnel integral, respectively.)
Let
$$f(x)=\begin{cases}\dfrac{\sin(x^2)}{x},\quad x\ne0\\0,\quad\quad\qquad x=0\end{cases} $$
Then
$$f'(x)=\begin{cases}2\cos(x^2)-\dfrac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2},\quad x\ne0\\1,\qquad\qquad\qquad\quad\qquad x=0\end{cases} $$
You can verify that $f$ and $f'$ are continuous.
$\lim_{x\to\infty}f'(x)$ doesn't exist since $\lim_{x\to\infty}\cos(x^2)$ doesn't exist and $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}=0$. Regarding the convergence,
$$\int_0^{\infty}f(x)\,dx=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x}\,dx $$
transforms to $\frac 12I_1$ with the substitution $x=\sqrt{t}$.
$$\int_0^{\infty}f'(x)\,dx=2\int_0^{\infty}\cos(x^2)\,dx-\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}$$
The first integral on the RHS is $I_2$. For the other one, integration by parts gives
$$\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin(x^2)}{x^2}=\sin(x^2)\left(-\frac 1x\right)\bigg\rvert_0^{\infty}+\int_0^{\infty}\frac{2x\cos(x^2)}{x}\,dx\\
=2\int_0^{\infty}\cos(x^2)\,dx$$
so it's convergent as well (and equal to $2I_2$).