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I'll attempt to prove the "easy" part of this proof that wasn't answered here.

Any feedback on the proof itself or proof writing style would be much appreciated!

$\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of functions and $p_n$ is an increasing sequence such that $p_n \rightarrow +\infty$. We have that

  1. The sequence of functions $\{f_n\}$ converges uniformly to $f$ on $[a, b]$ for every $b \ge a$.
  2. Each $f_n$ is Riemann-integrable on $[a, b]$ for every $b \ge a$.
  3. $|f_n(x)| < g(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a, +\infty)$ for some nonegative g, which is improper Riemann integratable on $[a, +\infty)$.

Prove that $f$, $|f| \in \mathcal{R}([a, +\infty))$.

Please disregard (1), see correction at the bottom. We will use the Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem to show that $\forall b\ge a$, $$ \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int_a^b f_n = \int_a^b f \tag{1} $$

This follows because $f_n {^\rightarrow_\rightarrow} f$ and $|f_n| \le g$ a.e. on $[a,b]$, where $0 \le g \in \mathcal{R}([a,\infty))$.

Now because $f_n {^\rightarrow _\rightarrow} f$, $\forall \epsilon > 0~~\exists N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \ge N$ and $\forall x \in [a,b]$, $$ |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon $$

But then \begin{align} & ||f_n(x)| - |f(x)|| \le |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon \\ & \Rightarrow |f_n| {^\rightarrow_\rightarrow} |f| \tag{2} \end{align}

And given (1), (2), and 3 above, we now have $\forall b \ge a$ $$ \int_a^b |f| = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int_a^b |f_n| \le \int_a^b g \le \int_a^\infty g < \infty \tag{3} $$

The claim follows from (1) and (3). $\square$

Update: Correction for (1) -- thanks to Maksim!

We have $f \in \mathcal{R}([a,b])$ $\forall b \ge a$, because $f_n{^\rightarrow_\rightarrow} f$ and $f_n \in \mathcal{R}([a,b])$.

IsaacR24
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    If you use the dominated convergence theorem, then line (1) states that $f$ is Lebesgue integrable and the right hand side is a Lebesgue-integral (and therefore not necessarily a Rieman-integral). – Maksim Dec 03 '21 at 20:55
  • Thanks Maksim! The result I wanted in (1) is actually much easier to obtain than I had thought. – IsaacR24 Dec 04 '21 at 17:02

1 Answers1

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Since $f_n{^\rightarrow_\rightarrow} f$ and $f_n \in \mathcal{R}([a,b])$, $\forall b \ge a$ $$ \tag{1} f \in \mathcal{R}([a,b]) $$

Now because $f_n {^\rightarrow _\rightarrow} f$, $\forall \epsilon > 0~~\exists N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \ge N$ and $\forall x \in [a,b]$, $$ |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon $$

But then \begin{align} & ||f_n(x)| - |f(x)|| \le |f_n(x) - f(x)| < \epsilon \\ & \Rightarrow |f_n| {^\rightarrow_\rightarrow} |f| \tag{2} \end{align}

And given (1), (2), and 3 (in the original problem above), we now have $\forall b \ge a$ $$ \int_a^b |f| = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int_a^b |f_n| \le \int_a^b g \le \int_a^\infty g < \infty \tag{3} $$

The claim follows from (1) and (3). $\square$

IsaacR24
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