WolframAlpha claims that $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \cos^2(2^k) \to 0$ as $n \to \infty$:
I doubt: By $\cos^2(2^{k+1})=(2\cos^2(2^k)-1)^2$ and Jensen's inequality applied to the convex function $x \mapsto x^2$ (or Cauchy Schwarz) $$ \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \cos^2(2^k)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n (2\cos^2(2^{k-1})-1)^2 \ge \left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n (2\cos^2(2^{k-1})-1)\right)^2 $$ $$ = \left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n (2\cos^2(2^{k-1}))-1\right)^2 = \left(\frac{2}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (\cos^2(2^{k}))-1\right)^2. $$ Now let $(n_j)$ be a sequence with $$ \frac{1}{n_j}\sum_{k=1}^{n_j} \cos^2(2^k) \to s:= \liminf_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \cos^2(2^k) \quad (j \to \infty). $$ Then $$ \frac{1}{n_j}\sum_{k=0}^{n_j-1} \cos^2(2^k) \to s \quad (j \to \infty), $$ and therefore $s \ge (2s-1)^2$, that is $4s^2-5s+1 \le 0$. Thus $s \in [1/4,1]$.
Two questions:
- Is this correct?
- Numerical experiments indicate $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n \cos^2(2^k) \to \frac{1}{2}$ as $n \to \infty$. Does anybody know a proof?
Thanks for any helpful comment.
Edit: I replaced $\limsup$ by $\liminf$ (same proof but more information).