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Let $f: \mathbb{C}\backslash \{-1, 0, 1\} \rightarrow \mathbb{C} \backslash \{0, 1\}$ be defined by $f(z) = z^2$. Show that the homomorphism $f_*: \pi_1(\mathbb{C} \backslash \{-1, 0, 1\}; 2) \rightarrow \pi_1(\mathbb{C} \backslash \{0, 1\}; 4)$ is injective.

It's kind of hard to convince myself that this is even true because I think $\pi_1(\mathbb{C} \backslash \{-1, 0, 1\}; 2) \cong \mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z}$ and $\pi_1(\mathbb{C} \backslash \{0, 1\}; 4) \cong \mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z}$.

Sumanta
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Math_Day
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    Your computations of the fundamental groups aren't correct. The correct answer would be in terms of free products, not direct sums. Namely, $\pi_1(\mathbb C\setminus{-1,0,1};2)$ is the free group on three generators, and the other is the free group on two generators. I'll think some more about the actual problem though – Andrea B. Dec 10 '21 at 05:43
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    The map $f$ is a two-fold cover (a proper local homeomorphism between two locally compact Hausdorff spaces is a covering), now apply https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/419137/induced-map-between-fundamental-groups-from-covering-map-is-injective – Sumanta Dec 10 '21 at 05:57
  • @User I'm not sure it's justified to edit the post, the poster said "I think", and you have no way of telling if it is a typo or not... – Andrea B. Dec 10 '21 at 06:09
  • In any case, the solution given by User is definitely the best way. You can get a graphical view of it by looking at the generators, but it is really hard to visualize $z^2$ (for me at least). – Andrea B. Dec 10 '21 at 06:29

1 Answers1

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Here's a visual solution. Suppose these are your three generators in $\pi_1(\mathbb C-\{-1,0,1\};2)$:

Generators in \pi_1(\mathbb C-{-1,0,1};2)

I will denote them as (inner to outer) $a,b,c$. The analogous generators in $\pi_1(\mathbb C - \{0,1\};4)$ will be $\alpha,\beta$.

Here is the generator $a$ and its image under $f$: image of generator a

This one is easy to see as being $\alpha$.

Here is the generator $b$ and its image under $f$: enter image description here

Notice that it wraps around $0$ twice, but $1$ only once. Using this and some deformations of the curve, one finds that this is $\beta\alpha^{-1}\beta$.

Finally, here is $c$ and its image under $f$: enter image description here

This wraps around $0$ and $1$ twice, and it is in fact $\beta^2$.

To summarize, we have $\pi_1(\mathbb C-\{-1,0,1\};2) = \langle a,b,c\mid\rangle, \pi_1(\mathbb C - \{0,1\};4) = \langle \alpha,\beta\mid\rangle$, and $f_*:\langle a,b,c\mid\rangle\to\langle \alpha,\beta\mid\rangle$ given by $f_*(a)=\alpha,f_*(b)=\beta\alpha^{-1}\beta,f_*(c)=\beta^2$.

It remains to argue why this is injective. You can do this by showing the kernel is trivial. There should be a formal argument for this, but I am really tired and will add that in post-script.

Post-script: I've been trying to think of a formal argument, but I've come up blank. I'll give some direction towards one though.

We want to show that there is no "word" in terms of $a,b,c$ that evaluates to the identity once we apply $f_*$. (For sake of simplicity, I will just say that $a=\alpha,b=\beta\alpha^{-1}\beta,c=\beta^2$, removing the need for $f_*$.) Essentially, one argues that the $\alpha^{-1}$ inside of $b$ cannot be isolated and cancelled by $a$. We need a $\beta^{-1}$. One way to make a $\beta^{-1}$ is to take $b^{-1}$, but then multiplying $bb^{-1}$ is pointless. Another way is to take $bc^{-1} = \beta\alpha^{-1}\beta^{-1}$. But then $bc^{-1}b = \beta\alpha^{-2}\beta$, leaving the $\alpha$ term "trapped". This may or may not be sufficiently rigorous, but it shouldn't be too difficult from here on.

Andrea B.
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