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Is $\displaystyle \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \ x=x\frac{\partial}{\partial x}=1$?

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    $\frac{\partial }{\partial x}x=\frac{\partial x}{\partial x}=1$. However $x\frac{\partial}{\partial x}=1$ has no sense, it is a derivative of what? – Vítězslav Štembera Dec 13 '21 at 10:48
  • I'm calculating laplacian where I should express a coordinate system in terms of a and b (check my recently post) and I got $\displaystyle \frac{\partial}{\partial a} a$ which is equal to 1. OK. BUT, then I also got $\displaystyle a\frac{\partial}{\partial a}$ is it also equal to one???? – Math Lover Dec 13 '21 at 10:53
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    you should clarify in your post that the "1" is not a number but the identity operator, ie $1:f(x)\to f(x)$ – cineel Dec 14 '21 at 12:59

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No. In the way you wrote, they should be intended as operator acting on something. So the first one is $$ \partial_x(xu) = u + x\partial_x u $$ while the second is $$ x\partial_x u. $$ Note so that $\partial_x x - x \partial_x = 1$, as operators acting on something.