Solve the IBVP \begin{gather} u_{tt}=u_{xx},\quad 0<x<1,\quad t>0\\ u(x,0)=x, \quad u_{t}(x,0)=0, \quad 0<x<1\\ u(0,t)=t^{2},\quad u(1,t)=\cos{t},\quad t>0 \end{gather}
I'm not sure how to approach this problem. I've done other IBVP's where the initial conditions are homogeneous, and solved them using the separation of variables method. I approached this problem the same way, but I get stuck, so I'm not sure separation of variables is the appropriate method for this problem. Any guidance, tutorials, or sample problems would be greatly appreciated.
So using the hint below this is what I've come up with but I feel like I'm doing something wrong. For $\varphi(x,t)$ I got: $$\varphi(x,t)=t^{2}+x(\cos{t}-t^2)$$ With $\varphi(0,t)=t^2$ and $\varphi(1,t)=\cos{t}.$
My problem comes with working with $v(x,t)$. I have to solve for $v(x,t)$ $$\begin{align} v_{tt}&=v_{xx}\\ v(0,t)&=0\\ v(1,t)&=0\\ v(x,0)&=x-\varphi(x,0)=0\\ v_t(x,0)&=-\varphi_t(x,0)=0 \end{align}$$
Using the separation of variables method I end up with $$\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty b_{n}\sin{n\pi x}\sin{n\pi t}$$ Looking at the initial conditions $v_t(x,0)=0$ I get: $$\begin{align} v_t(x,t)&=\pi\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n b_{n}\sin{n\pi x} \cos{n\pi t}\\ v_t(x,0)&=\pi\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n b_{n}\sin{n\pi x} \cos{n\pi (0)}\\ 0&=\pi\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty n b_{n}\sin{n\pi x} \end{align}$$
Does this mean that $b_n=0$ and if so wouldn't that make $v(x,t)=0$?
\,s in a row, use larger spaces:\, \: \; \quad \qquad. Also, if you don't actually want to align on those equal signs, replace thealignwith agatherand drop the&s. – dfeuer Jun 30 '13 at 23:57