Hello i have a little question about probability.
I have a function defined on $\mathbb{R}$ as follows,$f(x)=\frac{4x}{(1+x^2)^3}\mathbb{1}_{x>0} $ I have to show that this is the density of an r.v $X$ and that $X>0$ almost surely.
Assuming i've shown that this is its density we have :
$\mathbb{P}(X>0)= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{4x}{(1+x^2)^3}\mathbb{1}_{x>0}dx=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{4x}{(1+x^2)^3}dx=1$ since this is the density of $X$. Thus X>0 a.s is this correct ?