If $f$ is a real function whose derivative is itself, then it is not difficult to see that it is of the form $f(x)=ce^{x}$, $c \in \mathbb{R}$. (If $c=0$, then $f=0$).
Indeed, assume that $g(x)$ satisfies $g'(x)=g(x)$. Take $h(x):=g(x)e^{-x}$. Then by the Chain Rule we have: $h'(x)=g'(x)e^{-x}-g(x)e^{-x}$. Since $g(x)=g'(x)$ we obtain that $h'(x)=0$. Then $h(x)=c$, for some $c \in \mathbb{R}$. Therefore, $c=h(x)=g(x)e^{-x}$, so $g(x)=ce^{x}$.
Does the same proof (with adjustments) hold for complex functions, namely, if $g'(z)=g(z)$, then $g(z)=ce^{iz}$, $c \in \mathbb{C}$?
See this question.
Thank you very much!