I want to define a function $f$ to be "$n$-involutory" if it satisfies $$f(f(f\dots(x)))\dots=f^n(x)=x $$ where there does not exist $k$ such that $1 \leq k < n$ where $f^k(x) = x$. In general, is it acceptable to invent terms as long as I define them properly? (I'm still working on the definition for $n$-involutory, but I'm pretty sure this suffices for my question)
I've been looking around for a while around SE but I'm still relatively confused about it. Sorry if my question doesn't really belong on here :c