In my school's grade 10 curriculum we learnt something called the natural logarithm. And of course, comes $ln(0) = undefined$.
Now of course, every generic math teacher should ask their students, "Why?"
Here's my try: $$e^{a + bi} = e^a \times e^{bi} = 0$$and since $e^a > 0$, $$e^{bi} = 0$$ which implies that $$e^{(\pi\times\frac{b}{\pi}\times i)}=0$$ Let $c = \frac{b}{\pi}$, then $$(e^{\pi i})^{c} = \cos(\pi c) + i \sin (\pi c) = 0. $$
thus $$\cos(\pi c) = -i \sin (\pi c)$$ and since $\cos(x), \sin(x)$ for all real $x$ is real, $$\cos (\pi c) =-i \sin(\pi c)=0$$which has no solutions.
My questions:
- Is this proof valid?
- Are there faster way to make this proof?
- Are there any "newbies-will-understand-this" proof? (a.k.a. not using Euler's number, trigonometry, and such))