Consider a smooth function of several variables $f: U \to \mathbb{R} \in \mathrm{C}^1(U)$ where $U \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ is a connected set. It can be proven using the mean value theorem that if $U$ is compact and convex (any two points of $U$ can be connected by a segment in $U$), then $f$ is Lipschitz, i.e. $$ \exists L \in \mathbb{R} \quad \forall x, y \in U \quad |f(x) - f(y)| \le L \, ||x - y|| .$$ Sketch of a proof goes like this: consider a segment connecting $x$ and $y$, parametrize it, and consider $f$ along the segment as a function of one variable. Apply mean value theorem to it. Since the differential $\mathrm{d}f$ of $f$ is a continuous mapping on a compact $U$, it is bounded by Weierstrass theorem, and the inequality follows. See this stackexchange question for a full proof.
My textbook (on ODEs) says that if $U$ is compact, but not convex, then $f$ can be non-Lipschitz. It also provides an example. In polar coordinates on a plane, consider $$ (r, \phi) \mapsto (r-1)\phi \quad\text{ with } U = \{(r,\phi) \mid 1 \le r \le 2 \;\land\; \phi \in [(r-1)^2, 2\pi - (r-1)^2] \} $$ Question: Please help me see that this function is indeed non-Lipschitz. What is the motivation for such a strange set of values of $\phi$? If you know a simpler example, please share.
UPD: My confusion came from the definition of "f in polar coordinates". It must be understood that $f$ is still a function of usual cartesian coordinates $x,y$, but is expressed in terms of the transition-to-polar-coordinates map $(x, y) \mapsto (r(x,y), \phi(x,y))$ as $f(x,y) = (r(x,y)-1) \phi(x,y)$. The definition of $U$ must be changed accordingly to $$ U = \{(x,y) \mid 1 \le r(x,y) \le 2 \;\land\; \phi(x,y) \in [(r(x,y)-1)^2, 2\pi - (r(x,y)-1)^2]\}.$$