What does the inverse Fourier transform of a constant non-zero function look like.

Question

Worded another way, what does it look like to have all frequencies present at the same amplitude?

Dirac distribution (times constant). – Daniel Fischer Jul 01 '13 at 19:13 — Daniel Fischer, Jul 01 '13 at 19:13
Answer can be found on the first page of Google results... – rurouniwallace Jul 01 '13 at 19:19 — rurouniwallace, Jul 01 '13 at 19:19
My question in google, as worded, does not give the answer. – Brent Jul 01 '13 at 19:23 — Brent, Jul 01 '13 at 19:23

score 2 · Accepted Answer · answered Jul 01 '13 at 19:14

2

It's a Dirac delta (details depending on which convention you use).

answered Jul 01 '13 at 19:14

Robert Israel

1

Intuitively you can understand the Dirac delta "function" as a infinitely high and infinitely narrow peak at the origin with and area=1.
The moral of the story is that the fourier transform of something broad is narrow and vice versa.
– Spencer Jul 01 '13 at 19:45

1 Answers1