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Let X,Y be two sets. Is this true that "$X\times Y$ is subset of $P(P(X\cup Y)$"?

I tried to solve like this: If we choose an element of $X\times Y$, then it should be an element of

$P(P(X\cup Y)$.

Let this element be A. Assume A is an element of $X\times Y$. It means A has 2 elements, one from the set X and one from the set Y.

So, we need to show A is an element of $P(P(X\cup Y)$. It means that A is subset of $P(X\cup Y)$. Therefore, if we choose an element of A, it should be an element of $P(X\cup Y)$.

We assumed that A has 2 elements, one from the set X and one from the set Y. Let the element from set X be x and the element from set Y be y.

x and y are elements of $P(X\cup Y)$. Then, x and y are subset of $X\cup Y$. So if we choose an element of x or y, it should be an element of $X\cup Y$.

I don't know the rest of solution. Because x and y do not have to be set.

emre
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1 Answers1

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Your solution is not correct.

The mistake happens here:

Assume $A$ is an element of $X\times Y$. It means $A$ has $2$ elements, one from the set $X$ and one from the set $Y$.

This is not true. You should check the definitions that your textbook uses, but the most standard definitions used are as follows:

  • An "ordered pair" $(a,b)$ is defined as the set $\{a, \{a,b\}\}$.
  • The set $X\times Y$ is defined as the set of all ordered pairs $(x,y)$ where $x\in X$ and $y\in Y$.

Using the definitions I wrote above, the statement you wrote is false.

5xum
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