1

My understanding assumption is that division inverses multiplication. That may be incorrect or incomplete. I will copy the inversion from WolframMathworld $$a * b = c$$$$a = c \div b$$ Why is the result of dividing any number by zero not the set of all numbers? Is there an unspoken rule that division must always return a single number? Other functions may have many results, for example $\sqrt4 = \{2, -2\}$.

A common example given for why $0/0$ is nonsense, this one found on Reddit:

If $0/0=7$ then $7*0=0$? Yes
If $0/0=54$ then $54*0=0$? Yes
It certainly seems like every number is going to work...

Says that since any number multiplied by zero is zero, the answer to, "what number did I multiply by zero to get zero?" is nonsense since it could be any number. So, to be more specific with the question, why is the act of dividing by zero labeled as undefined, not solvable, and nonsense? Considering in multiplication all numbers times zero is zero, and division is multiplication's inverse, it seems to me zero divided by zero is all numbers.

UpTide
  • 169
  • 4
    $0/0$ is undefined, theres no magic to it – janes Dec 28 '21 at 17:14
  • 2
    It’s not so much an unspoken rule, but instead a definition, that division is a binary operation that should return a number. – user27182 Dec 28 '21 at 17:14
  • 5
    Actually, $\sqrt4=2$. – José Carlos Santos Dec 28 '21 at 17:15
  • 3
    All functions have a single value as the result. It's part of the definition of a function. That's true for division or any other binary operation. – CyclotomicField Dec 28 '21 at 17:17
  • @CyclotomicField don't circles, $x^2 + y^2 = r^2$, break your "one value as the result"? In that equation when ${h, k} =0$ and $r = 1$ then when $x=0$, $y=\pm1$ – UpTide Dec 28 '21 at 17:32
  • 4
    @UpTide No, it doesn't. What you have is an algebraic equation, $x^2+y^2=1$. It has infinitely many solutions. A function takes an input, and produces one, and only one, output. – K.defaoite Dec 28 '21 at 17:41
  • 1
    @K.defaoite so then if division was defined as returning a set of complex numbers (mostly being a set containing one number, it could return the entire set of complex numbers as its one output. But no one defines it that way, so it doesn't? – UpTide Dec 28 '21 at 17:53
  • 1
    As said, 0/0 is not defined so that your example and your argument is built on nothing. – Paul Dec 28 '21 at 18:43
  • @K.defaoite https://math.mit.edu/~djk/calculus_beginners/chapter01/section03.html says "Any positive real number has two square roots." Is this an illegal function of $x$? $f(x)=\sqrt x$ – UpTide Dec 28 '21 at 20:37
  • @Paul my question is directly related to the reasoning for $0/0$ being undefined. I am trying to figure out why dividing by $0$ can't return all complex numbers since all complex numbers times $0$ are $0$. – UpTide Dec 28 '21 at 20:48
  • Your example starts with $0/0 = 7$ then draws a conclusion. You can't start with a meaningless premise then draw a conclusion. We are left then trying to imagine what you think you might mean. You can multiply everything by 0 to get the number 0 but you cannot divide anything by 0 and get a number. – Paul Dec 28 '21 at 22:11
  • 1
    @UpTide Considering the square root(s) : the sentence "any positive real number has two square roots" means that for every $x >0$, there are two numbers whose square is $x$. But by definition, the symbol $\sqrt{\ }$ refers to the positive square root : so the function $x \mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is weel-defined, it has only one output (as every function), and $\sqrt{4}=2$ and only $2$. – TheSilverDoe Dec 28 '21 at 22:35
  • @Paul thank you for pointing out that problem. I have updated the question. I look forward to criticism on the last sentence especially. – UpTide Dec 28 '21 at 22:36
  • Did you read where Mathworld said, as long as $b\ne0$? – Gerry Myerson Dec 28 '21 at 23:53
  • 1
    @UpTide the expression $x^2+y^2=r^2$ is a relation, but not a function. Functions are a special kind of relation that only have one value as a result. Both kinds of expressions are important which is why they each have their own names. – CyclotomicField Dec 29 '21 at 13:47
  • @CyclotomicField, in my mind I restructured $x^2 + y^2 = r^2$ to be a function of x where r is 1. $f(x)=\sqrt{1-x^2}$, which would, by standard definition of square root, only draw the top half of a circle. I think $f(x)=\pm\sqrt{1-x^2}$ might allow this, but maybe is not an actual function? – UpTide Dec 29 '21 at 22:36
  • 1
    A curve in the plane will be the graph of a function if and only if every vertical line intersects the curve at exactly one point. Since some vertical lines will cross a circle at two points no matter how we write the equations it will not be the graph of a function. You can find a function whose image is a circle such as $f(x)=(\cos 2\pi x , \sin 2 \pi x)$ but note that this is a function from $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$ rather than a function from $\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. $f(x)=\sqrt{1-x^2}$ is a function as is $f(x)=-\sqrt{1-x^2}$. – CyclotomicField Dec 29 '21 at 23:13
  • @CyclotomicField, these comments may be leaving the question's scope. Do you recommend any learning resources about function domain and range? I have a grasp of your syntax and ideas, but a formal reference will be more useful than my own reasoning. (As obvious from my idea about dividing by zero.) – UpTide Dec 30 '21 at 13:36
  • @UpTide Most college level texts start with naïve set theory which includes defining relations and functions. The technical definition is that a function $f:A \rightarrow B$ is a subset of $A \times B$, the cartesian product of $A$ and $B$ such that if $(a,b) \in f$ and $(a,c) \in f$ then $b=c$. Said another way, given some input $a$ the output $b$ is unique. $A$ is called the domain of the function and $B$ is called the range of the function. Wikipedia is a good resource too if you want a more exhaustive explanation. – CyclotomicField Dec 30 '21 at 15:12

1 Answers1

3

A function has a certain domain, and a certain target space. For example addition of real numbers can be thought of as a mapping $\Bbb{R}\times\Bbb{R}\to\Bbb{R}$, $(x,y)\mapsto x+y$. Similarly multiplication of real numbers can be thought of as a mapping $\Bbb{R}\times\Bbb{R}\to\Bbb{R}$, $(x,y)\mapsto x\cdot y$.

Now, here comes the problem with division by zero. The set of real numbers with the usual definitions of addition and multiplication form a field. Let's go systematically in this manner of presentation, since that's what you seem to want. Our (inevitably doomed) goal is to somehow define a division operation $\Bbb{R}\times\Bbb{R}\to\Bbb{R}$, meaning we take an input of two real numbers and output a unique real number $(x,y)\mapsto \frac{x}{y}$. Let us now be more precise about the fraction symbol.

For any $x,y\in\Bbb{R}$, consider the following set of numbers \begin{align} D_{x,y}:=\{z\in\Bbb{R}\,|\,\, x=z\cdot y\} \end{align}

Here are some statements we can make: for any $x\in\Bbb{R}$ and $y\in\Bbb{R}\setminus\{0\}$, the set $D_{x,y}$ consists of a single element. This is because $\Bbb{R}$ is a field, meaning by definition every non-zero element has a (necessarily unique) multiplicative inverse. Next, for any $x\in\Bbb{R}$, we have that $D_{x,0}=\Bbb{R}$.

So, to define "division" we can take two routes. One is the standard way, and the other is not.

  1. We can define the mapping $\Bbb{R}\times (\Bbb{R}\setminus\{0\})\to\Bbb{R}$, where we take $(x,y)$ and map it to the unique element of $D_{x,y}$. This is our usual notion of division.

  2. We could define a new mapping $\Bbb{R}\times\Bbb{R}\to 2^{\Bbb{R}}$, where $2^{\Bbb{R}}$ refers to the power set of $\Bbb{R}$, i.e the set of all subsets of $\Bbb{R}$. The definition is $(x,y)\mapsto D_{x,y}$. There is no way to modify this function to have a target space of $\Bbb{R}$, i.e what is nonsense is trying to modify this function to have $\Bbb{R}$ as target space.

So, the extra layer of abstractness one has to deal with (dealing with the level of sets of sets) just to take into account $0$ is simply not worth it. The larger target space $2^{\Bbb{R}}$ is just unwieldy, and it is inconvenient for many practical calculations because it is not a field/vector space. Therefore, we rather adopt the first alternative: restrict the domain and deal with a manageable target space as opposed to allowing a larger domain but an ugly target space.

Summarizing: it is our (very reasonable) desire to keep $\Bbb{R}$ as the target space (and the field axioms for $\Bbb{R}$) which forces us to say division by zero is undefined (as a real number).


Coming to your comment about square roots. We can do a similar thing: for any $x\in\Bbb{R}$, we can consider the set $S_x:=\{y\in\Bbb{R}\,|\, y^2=x\}$. If $x<0$, then $S_x$ is empty, if $x=0$ then $S_0=\{0\}$ has a unique element of $0$, and lastly, if $x>0$, then $S_x$ has exactly two elements; one of them is positive, the other negative. So, we could define either of the following functions:

  • $\sigma:\Bbb{R}\to 2^{\Bbb{R}}$, $\sigma(x):= S_x$. So this is the set-valued real-square root.
  • Alternatively, we can define $\sqrt{\cdot}\,\,:[0,\infty)\to [0,\infty)$, by defining $\sqrt{x}$ to be the unique non-negative element of the set $S_x$. So, in this definition $\sqrt{0}=0$, $\sqrt{4}=2$, $\sqrt{(-3)^2}=3$ and so on.

Again, the question is one of compromise. Larger domain here requires a larger target space, which is ugly. Or we could restrict our domain and deal with the much simpler target space $[0,\infty)\subset\Bbb{R}$. We obviously adopt the second because it makes arithmetic and notation easier.

I should of course emphasize that this definition of $\sqrt{\cdot}$ is completely arbitrary. We had to make a choice (but once we made this choice nothing is arbitrary anymore); we decided by hand that $\sqrt{\cdot}$ only outputs non-negative real numbers, because we humans like non-negative numbers.

peek-a-boo
  • 55,725
  • 2
  • 45
  • 89
  • 1
    This makes much more sense than simply "it isn't possible"; it isn't possible because we're making it that way on purpose. To build on your answer, would division that used your non-standard definition be incompatible with other traditional functions--and even itself--because their domains use real numbers and not the power set of real numbers? – UpTide Dec 29 '21 at 14:02
  • 1
    @UpTide yes, exactly. Functions like $\sin,\exp,\arctan$ and even polynomial functions all have domain $\Bbb{R}$, not $2^{\Bbb{R}}$. If one wants to be extremely silly, the following is possible. Define the set $R=\Bbb{R}\cup{\ddot{\frown}}$. One way to extend the sin function is $s:2^{\Bbb{R}}\to R$, defined by $s(E)=\ddot{\frown}$ if $E$ does not consist of exactly one element, and define $s(E)=\sin(\xi)$ if $E={\xi}$ is a singleton set. – peek-a-boo Dec 29 '21 at 14:08
  • 1
    This way we have constructed an extension of the sine function to have $2^{\Bbb{R}}$ as the domain. But of course this is just a useless abstract nonsensical, unnecessarily confusing definition which serves to purpose beyond the goal of "extending the domain". So, the real issue is that there is no natural/canonical/reasonable way of extending the familiar functions of calculus to have $2^{\Bbb{R}}$ (or some subset thereof, not just consisting of singletons) as a domain. – peek-a-boo Dec 29 '21 at 14:09
  • Why would we need a sad face? Why couldn't $\sin$ function like scalar to a vector? The "vector" in this case being the set of real numbers? Such as this ($X={f(x):x∈A}$)? – UpTide Dec 29 '21 at 18:35
  • 2
    @UpTide again, it is up to you to define whatever you want (just be sure to be explicitly mention it if you're going against centuries of well-established definitions). All I'll say is that while there are endless possibilities for definitions, only some are useful (as I've been trying to emphasize in my answer and all my previous comments). – peek-a-boo Dec 29 '21 at 19:10
  • I understand. Thank you for your patience to delve into this topic with me. It got somewhat off track, but digging into the application of sets really clarifies the "why not?" question in regards to my original question. If this conversation is "cleaned up" it will definitely gimp your answer for people that are like me that are also math illiterate. – UpTide Dec 29 '21 at 20:28