Let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a Frobenius Lie algebra, that is, there exist $f \in \mathfrak{g}^{*}$ such that the bilinear form defined by $b(x,y)=f([x,y])$ is non-degenerate. Since $b$ is non-degenerate there exist a unique $x_p \in \mathfrak{g}$ called the principal element(asociated to $f$) which satisfies $$ f \circ ad(x_p)=f $$ and it can be proved that $$tr(ad(x_p))=\frac{\dim (\mathfrak{g})}{2}$$ which implies that $x_p \notin [\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$. Here is my question: Why if $\lbrace x_p,x_1,\ldots, x_{2n+1} \rbrace$ is a basis of $\mathfrak{g}$ then $span\lbrace x_1,\ldots, x_{2n+1} \rbrace$ is an ideal of $\mathfrak{g}$?.
I read in an article, namely, Principal derivations and codimension one ideals in contact and Frobenius Lie algebras that this follows from the last remark(that is, $x_p \notin [\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$) but I don't agree with this. I mean, if we consider the $2$-dimensional Lie algebra $\mathfrak{g}$ defined by $[e_1,e_2]=e_1+e_2$, then $e_1 \notin [\mathfrak{g},\mathfrak{g}]$ but $span \lbrace e_2 \rbrace$ is not an ideal of $\mathfrak{g}$, am I wrong? If so, why?
In advance, thank you.