This lemma states that for boundary condition $$\varphi\in C^0(\partial B) \cap C^{2,\alpha}(T)$$ where $T$ is a portion of $\partial B$, the Dirichlet problem $$Lu = f$$ is solvable on ball $B$, with the assumptions $L$ is uniformly elliptic and its coefficients $$a^{ij},b^{i},c, f\in C^{\alpha}$$ where $c\leq 0$.
Its proof is to first extend $\varphi$ on to whole $B$ and approximate by smooth $\varphi_k$ in $C_0$-norm, and from the potential theory there is corresponding $u_k\in C^{2,\alpha}(\bar{B})$ solving boundary condition $\varphi_k$.
Question: So I know from Shauder estimate we could conclude $u_k$ converges in $C^2$, but the author then states, without futher explanation that
It follows from $$\vert \varphi_k - \varphi\vert_{0;B}\to 0\; \text{ and }\; \vert \varphi_k \vert_{2,\alpha,G} \leq C\vert \varphi\vert_{2,\alpha,G}$$ ($G$ is a small ball centered around $x_0\in T$), the Shauder estimate $$\vert u_k\vert_{2,\alpha,D} \leq C(\vert u_k\vert_{0,B} + \vert\varphi_k\vert_{2,\alpha,G} + \vert f \vert_{0,\alpha, B})$$ ($D$ is a smaller ball contained in $G$) and Arzela's theorem that $$u\in C^{2,\alpha}(\bar{D})$$
but I can only see $u\in C^2$, where does that $C^{2,\alpha}$ come from?