Let $M$ be a smooth manifold and $p \in M.$ Let $v \in T_p (M).$ Then there exixts a smooth curve $\gamma : (-\varepsilon,\varepsilon) \longrightarrow M$ with $\gamma (0) = p$ such that $\gamma'(0) = v.$
Let $\dim M = n$ and let $e_i$ be the $i$-th coordinate vector for $\mathbb R^n.$ Fix a chart $(\phi, U)$ in $M$ around $p.$ Then there exists an $\varepsilon \gt 0$ such that the $\varepsilon$-neighborhood of $\phi(p)$ is contained in $\phi (U).$ Now define $\gamma : (-\varepsilon, \varepsilon) \longrightarrow M$ by $$\gamma(t) = \phi^{-1} \left (\phi (p) + t \sum\limits_{i=1}^{n} v(x_i) e_i \right )$$ where $x_i$ is the $i$-th coordinate function corresponding to the chart $(\phi, U).$ Then it is claimed in my note that $\gamma'(0) = v.$ But I am having hard time showing this. What I need to show is that given $f \in C^{\infty} (p)$ (the space of all real valued functions defined on $M$ which are smooth at $p$) we should have $\gamma'(0) (f) = v(f).$ In other words for any $f \in C^{\infty} (p)$ we have $$\frac {d} {dt} \left (f \circ \gamma \right ) (t)\ \bigg \rvert_{t = 0} = v(f).$$
Any help would be appreciated.